ANSWER KEY UPDATED PLEASE REFRESH NOW
To NEET Exam 2020 was conducted by the National Testing Agency and more than 15 lakh students attend the examination today. All students are in a hurry to verify their answers whether its right or wrong. To help those students we released a tentative answer key for all sets of NEET question papers. The answer key for NEET exam 2020 available in the following section
For transistor nation, which of the following statements in correct?
a.both emittor junction as well as the collector junction are forward biosed b) the base region must be very thin and lightly doped c) Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations d) Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size
2) A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2 x 10 -1 c distributed uniformly, what is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
3)Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is comming from a star, the limit of resolution of telesope whose objective has adiameter of 2m is a) 7.32 x 10-7 rad b) 6.00 x10 -7 rad c) 3.66 x 10-7 rad d) 1.83 x10-7rad
4 Dimensions of stress are
5. a SCREW gage has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale
The pitch of the scre gauge is 1. 0.5 mm 2. 1.0 mm 3. 0.01 mm 4 0.25mm
11. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower . It hits the ground after some time with n velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)
a) 320 m b) 300m d) 360m c) 340m
12. For the logic circuit shown the truth table is
13. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16×10-9cm . The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, sistuated on a line making an angle of 60 degree with the dipole axis is
14. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5g. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5g.ANother capillarry tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is a)10.0g b) 20.0g c) 2.5g d) 5.0 g
15. Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (p) with tempreature (T) for copper?
16.The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : (c=Speed of electromagnetic waves) a) 1: c b) 1:c2 c) C:1 d) 1:1
17.A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is
18.For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid? a) Deuteron atom b) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+) c) Hydrogen atom d) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
19. The energy equivalent of 0.5g of a substance is
20 Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99m – 0.0099m ? a)9.980m b)9.9m c)9.9801m d) 9.98m
21. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increase to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, The original frequency of B will be a) 536 hz 2) 537 Hz 3) 523 Hz 4) 524 Hz
22.A series LCR Circuit is connected to an ac voltage source, When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and volgea,. If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again between current and voltage . The power factor of the circuit is a)1.0 b) -1.0 d) zero 4) 0.5
23. The quqntities of heat required to raise the tempreature of two solid copper spheres of radius r1 and r1 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 k are in the ration a) 3/2 b) 5/3 c) 27/8 4) 9/4
24.The brewsters angle i for an interface should be
25. Two cylinders A and B of equel capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temparature and pressure B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddently opened. The process is a) isochoris b) isobaric c) isothermal d) adiabatic
26. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 A m-1 The permeability of the material of the rod is
27. The capacitance of a paralledl plate capacitor with air as medim is 6 uf. With the introduction of dielectric medium the capacitance become 30 u the permittivity of the medium is
28.A charges particle having drift velocity of 7.5 x 10 -4 m in an electric field of has a mobility in m
29. The colour code of a resistance is given below ,
The values of resistance and tolerances,respectively
30. The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are 1) semiconductors only 2) isulators and semiconductors 3) metals 4) insulators only
31. A body weighs 71 N on the surface of the earth What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth
32. A 40 uF capacitor is connected to a 200 V,50 Hz ac supply, The rms value of the current in the circuit is nearly
33.The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is
34. The average thermal energy for a mono – atomic gas is (kb is boltzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)
35. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material what will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled? 1) one fourth 2) zero 3) doubled 4) four times
36. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fized support, The length of the wire changed to L1 when mass M is suspecded from its free and the expression for youngs modulus is
37.A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface . If the refractive index of the material of the prism is U, Then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to
38. Find the torque about the origin when a force of acts on a particle whose position vector is
39.In young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes 1) four times 2) one – fourth 3) double 4) half
40 The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10 this value in e V is nearly
41. When uranium isotope is bombarded with the neutron it
42. Two particles of mass 5kg and 10kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1m with negligible mass
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at the distance of 1) 67 2) 80cm 3) 33 cm 4) 50 cm
43.Light with an average fluz of 20 falls on a non reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface aread cm2. the energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is
44. The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n Junction diode is due to 1) both forward bias and reverese bias 2) increase in forward current 3) forward bias only 4) reverse bias only
45.A resistance wire connected in the left gap of metre bridge balance a 10 resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridgewith in the ration .If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5, then the length of 1 ohm of the resitance wire is
46. Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions
47.Identify a molecule which does not exist 1) C2 2) O2 3) HE2 4)Li2
48.Which of the following is a natural polymer?
16. Choose the correct pair from the following
a) Nuclease – Separates the two stracle of DNA
b) Exonuclease – Male cuts at specific positions within DNA
c) Ligase – Join the two DNA molecules
d) Polymerases – Break the DNA into fragments
85. Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms?
86.For the reaction the correct option
87. Identify the correct statements from the following
88. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which proerty of colloidal solution
89.What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction
90.The following metal ion activates many participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with NA, is resposibile for the transmission ofnerve signals 1) calcium 2) potesium 3) iron 4) copper
91.Prsence of which of the following condition urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus
92.Match the following columns and select the correct option
93. Match the following coloumns and select the correct aption
94. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector DNA in the vector, is termed 1) Palindromic sequence 2) recognition site 3) Selectable marker 4) ori site
95. Match the following columns and select the correct option
96.In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive? 1) ICSI and ZIFT 2) GIFT and ICSI 3) ZIFT and IUT 4) GIFT and ZIFT
97. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration a) contraction of disphragm b) contractionof external inter costal muscles c) pulmonary volume decreases d) intra pulmonary pressure increase 1) a,b and d 2) only d 3) a and b 4) c and d
98. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents 1) Depolarisationof Centricles 2)Repolarisation of Ventricles 3) repolarisation of auricles 4) Depolarisation of auricles
99.The enzymes enterokinae helps theconverstiin of
100 Identify the correct statement with reference to human difestive system
101. Ray florets have
102. Which of the following in put, into annerobic aludge digeter for furteher sawage treatment
103. The number of substrate level phosphorylation in one turn of citric acid cycle is
104.Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (gap 1) of interphase
105. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae? 1) Anabaena and volvox 2) chlorella and spirulina 3) laminaria and sargassum 4) galidium and gracilaria
106. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity 1) active immunity is quick and gives fully response 2)foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity 3) when exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the hosts body .It is called active immunity 4) when ready made antibodies are directly given, it is called passive immunity
107. Match the following coloumns and select the correct option
108. Identify the basic amino acid from the following 1) Lysine 2) valine 3) tyrosine 4) glutamic acid
109. The plant parts which consists of two generations one withing the other 1) Pollen grains inside the anther b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes c) seed inside the fruit d) Embryo sae inside the ovule 1) (c) and (d) 2) 9a) and (d) 3) (a) only
110.Identify the wrong statement with references transport of oxygen
111. Match the following columns and select the correct option
112.Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop. increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop 1) ethylene 2) abscisic acid 3) cytokinin 4) gibberellin
113. The root that originates from the base of the stem are 1) prop roots 2) lateral roots 3) Fibrous roots 4) Primary roots
114.If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because
115.strobili or cones are found in 1) marchantia 2) equistum 3)salvinia 4) pteris
116. dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during a) diplotene 2) leptotene 3) pachytene 4) zygotene
117 . Match the following disease with the causative organism and select the correct option
118. The first phase of dranation is
119. Match the following coloums and correct option
120.The oxygenation activity of photorespiratin lead int he
121. Match the following and their functions inplants
122. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA heliz during transcription a) DNA polymerise b) RNA polymerase c) DNA ligase d) DNA helicase
123. From this experiments S L miller produced amoni acids by minixing the following in a closed flast
124. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from a) chondrocytes b) compound epithelial cells c) squanmous spithelial cells d) coloumnar epithelial cells
125) Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in
a) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron b) eustachian tube c) lining of intestine d) ducts of salivary glands
126. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from
127. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of the DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 x 109 bp then the length of the DNA is approximately a) 2.2 meters b) 2.7-meter c) 2.o meters 4) 2.5 meters
128. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotie cells 1) golgi bodies 2) polysomes 3) endoplasmic reticulum d) peroxisomies
129. which of the following statements is not correct? 1)the functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds 2) genetically engineered insulin is produced in E Coli 3) In man insulin is synthesized as a proinsulin 4) the proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-Peptide
130. Identify the incorrect statement 1) sapwood is the innermost secondary rylem and is ligheter in colour 2. due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc heart wood is dark in colour, 3) heart wood does not conducted water but gives mechanical supports 4)sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root of leaf
131. Floridean starc has structure similar to
132) Match the folloiwng with respect to meiosis
133. Match the following columns and select the correct option
134. The process of growth is maximum during a) senescence b) dormancy d)log phase d) lag phase
135. Match the following
136. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage, This is called quiescent stage (G0) This process occurs at the end of a) S Phase b) G2 Phase d) M Phase d) G1 Phase
137. Which of the following would help in prevention of diureses?
a) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasconstriction b) Decrease in hecretion of renin by JG cells d) More water reabsorptions due to undersecretion of ADH d) Reabsorptions of NA+ and water from reneal trubules due to aldosterone
138. Which of the following is correct about viroids? a) they have DNA with protein coaat,2) They have free DNA without proteing coat c) They have RNA with proteing coat d) they have free RNA without proteing coat.
139. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is a) female gametocytes b) male gametocytes c) trophozoites d) sporzoites
140.) Which of the following statements is correct? a) adenine pairs with thymine through three h bonds b) adenine does not pair with thymine c) adenine pairs with thymine through two h bonds d) adenne pairs with thymine through one H-bond
141. Flippers of Penguins and dolphines are examples of a) Industril melanism b) natural selection c) adaptive radiation d) convergent evolution
142. Monstreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of
143 Identify the wrond staement with regard to resstriction enxzymes a) they are usefu in genetic engeering b) sticky ends can be joint by using DNA c) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence d) they cut the strand od DNA at palindrome is site
144. By which method was a new breed Hisardale of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and marino rams? a) cross breeding b) inbreading c) out crossing d) Mutational breeding
145. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organizms which have evolved due to changes in environement brought about by anthropogenic action?
146 ) meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed
147. In relation to gross primary productivity and primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
148) Identify the wrong statement with reference the game ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups
149) Match the following columns and select the correct option
161. The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features
a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
b) Large consepicuous parenchymatous ground tissures.
c) vascular bundles conjoint and closed
d) Pholoem parenchyma absent
Identify the category of plant andits part
1.Discotyledonous stem 2. dicotylednous root 3. monocotlylednous stem 4. Monocotyledonous root
162. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by a) Boveri b) Morgan c) Mendel d)Sutton
163.Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to :
a) Plant nematodes b) insect predators c) Insect pests d) fungal diseases
164. Select the correct statement
a) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes b) insulin is associated with hyperglycemia c) glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis d) glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia
165 ) The specific palindromic sequece which is recognized by ECCRI is
166) Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure a) cellulose, lesithin 2) inulin, insulin c) chitin,cholesterol 4) glycerol,trypsin
167) The products(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are a) ammonia and oxygen b)Ammonia and hydrogen c) Ammonia alone d) Nitrate alone
168) Which of the folloiwng hormone levels will cause release of ovum (Ovulation) from the graffian follicle? a) Low concentraion of LH b) Low concentration of FSH c) High concentration of Estrogen d) High concentration of Progesterone
169 ) Which of the following statements are true for the phylum – Chordatea ? a) In urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life. b ) In verbrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow d) Choradata is divided into 3 subphyla ,hemichordate, tunicata and cephalochrdate
174. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
a)AIDS, Malaria,Filaria b) Cancer,AIDS,Syphilis c) Gonorrhoea,Syphilis,Gental Hepes 4) Conorrhoea,Malariea,Genetal Herpes
175. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by
a)Wind and water b) insects and water 3)insects or wind 4)water currents only
176.In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of
a)acetocarmine in UV radiation b) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation c)acetocarmine in bright blue light d) ethidium bromide in UV radiation
177 Secondary metabolites such as niotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their
a) defence action b) effect on reproduction c) Nutritive value d) growth response
178 How many true breedings pea plat varieties di mentdel select as pairs, which were similiar expert in one character with contrasting traits? a) 14 b) 8 c) 4 d) 2
179 Which of the following is not an attribute population? a) mortality b) species interaction c)sex ratio 4)natality
180) Snow blidness in antarctic region is due to
a) high reflection of light from snow b) damage to retina caused by infra red 3) freezing of fluids in the eye by temperature d) inflammation of cornea due to high on UV- B Radiation
We are running a coaching center for poor students who prepare for the neet exam and other competitive exams. So our staffs prepare a tentative neet exam answer key for our students. There is always a big media people around to announce and release the neet exam answer key online. Nowadays a great number of websites post the neet exam answer key on their website. But non of the media people publish answer sheet to the public on time, there is a time delay to release neet exam answer key live to students through the internet. So we decided to update the live answerkey on this page, Please say calm until 2 pm and get the Neet Exam Tentative answer key first.
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05-05-2019 : Neet Exam Answerkey (15/05/2019 Neet Exam Answerkey)
Original Question Paper Download
| NEET 2019 Set No-1 | Code No P1 – Download |
| NEET 2019 Set No-2 | Code No P2 – Download |
| NEET 2019 Set No-3 | Code No Q1 – Download |
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Neet Exam Negative Mark Calculation
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NEET Question Paper Set – 1 Answer key
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| 2 | 38 | 74 | 110 | 146 | |||||
| 3 | 39 | 75 | 111 | 147 | |||||
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| 32 | 68 | 104 | 140 | 176 | |||||
| 33 | 69 | 105 | 141 | 177 | |||||
| 34 | 70 | 106 | 142 | 178 | |||||
| 35 | 71 | 107 | 143 | 179 | |||||
| 36 | 72 | 108 | 144 | 180 |
NEET Question Paper Set – 2 Answer key
| 1 | 37 | 73 | 109 | 145 | |||||
| 2 | 38 | 74 | 110 | 146 | |||||
| 3 | 39 | 75 | 111 | 147 | |||||
| 4 | 40 | 76 | 112 | 148 | |||||
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| 6 | 42 | 78 | 114 | 150 | |||||
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| 10 | 46 | 82 | 118 | 154 | |||||
| 11 | 47 | 83 | 119 | 155 | |||||
| 12 | 48 | 84 | 120 | 156 | |||||
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| 18 | 54 | 90 | 126 | 162 | |||||
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| 20 | 56 | 92 | 128 | 164 | |||||
| 21 | 57 | 93 | 129 | 165 | |||||
| 22 | 58 | 94 | 130 | 166 | |||||
| 23 | 59 | 95 | 131 | 167 | |||||
| 24 | 60 | 96 | 132 | 168 | |||||
| 25 | 61 | 97 | 133 | 169 | |||||
| 26 | 62 | 98 | 134 | 170 | |||||
| 27 | 63 | 99 | 135 | 171 | |||||
| 28 | 64 | 100 | 136 | 172 | |||||
| 29 | 65 | 101 | 137 | 173 | |||||
| 30 | 66 | 102 | 138 | 174 | |||||
| 31 | 67 | 103 | 139 | 175 | |||||
| 32 | 68 | 104 | 140 | 176 | |||||
| 33 | 69 | 105 | 141 | 177 | |||||
| 34 | 70 | 106 | 142 | 178 | |||||
| 35 | 71 | 107 | 143 | 179 | |||||
| 36 | 72 | 108 | 144 | 180 |
NEET Question Paper Set – 3 Answer key
| 1 | 37 | 73 | 109 | 145 | |||||
| 2 | 38 | 74 | 110 | 146 | |||||
| 3 | 39 | 75 | 111 | 147 | |||||
| 4 | 40 | 76 | 112 | 148 | |||||
| 5 | 41 | 77 | 113 | 149 | |||||
| 6 | 42 | 78 | 114 | 150 | |||||
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| 8 | 44 | 80 | 116 | 152 | |||||
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| 12 | 48 | 84 | 120 | 156 | |||||
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| 26 | 62 | 98 | 134 | 170 | |||||
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| 28 | 64 | 100 | 136 | 172 | |||||
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| 30 | 66 | 102 | 138 | 174 | |||||
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| 32 | 68 | 104 | 140 | 176 | |||||
| 33 | 69 | 105 | 141 | 177 | |||||
| 34 | 70 | 106 | 142 | 178 | |||||
| 35 | 71 | 107 | 143 | 179 | |||||
| 36 | 72 | 108 | 144 | 180 |
NEET Question Paper Set – 4 Answer key
| 1 | 37 | 73 | 109 | 145 | |||||
| 2 | 38 | 74 | 110 | 146 | |||||
| 3 | 39 | 75 | 111 | 147 | |||||
| 4 | 40 | 76 | 112 | 148 | |||||
| 5 | 41 | 77 | 113 | 149 | |||||
| 6 | 42 | 78 | 114 | 150 | |||||
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| 8 | 44 | 80 | 116 | 152 | |||||
| 9 | 45 | 81 | 117 | 153 | |||||
| 10 | 46 | 82 | 118 | 154 | |||||
| 11 | 47 | 83 | 119 | 155 | |||||
| 12 | 48 | 84 | 120 | 156 | |||||
| 13 | 49 | 85 | 121 | 157 | |||||
| 14 | 50 | 86 | 122 | 158 | |||||
| 15 | 51 | 87 | 123 | 159 | |||||
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| 20 | 56 | 92 | 128 | 164 | |||||
| 21 | 57 | 93 | 129 | 165 | |||||
| 22 | 58 | 94 | 130 | 166 | |||||
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| 24 | 60 | 96 | 132 | 168 | |||||
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| 26 | 62 | 98 | 134 | 170 | |||||
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| 28 | 64 | 100 | 136 | 172 | |||||
| 29 | 65 | 101 | 137 | 173 | |||||
| 30 | 66 | 102 | 138 | 174 | |||||
| 31 | 67 | 103 | 139 | 175 | |||||
| 32 | 68 | 104 | 140 | 176 | |||||
| 33 | 69 | 105 | 141 | 177 | |||||
| 34 | 70 | 106 | 142 | 178 | |||||
| 35 | 71 | 107 | 143 | 179 | |||||
| 36 | 72 | 108 | 144 | 180 |
NEET Question Paper Set – 5 Answer key
| 1 | 37 | 73 | 109 | 145 | |||||
| 2 | 38 | 74 | 110 | 146 | |||||
| 3 | 39 | 75 | 111 | 147 | |||||
| 4 | 40 | 76 | 112 | 148 | |||||
| 5 | 41 | 77 | 113 | 149 | |||||
| 6 | 42 | 78 | 114 | 150 | |||||
| 7 | 43 | 79 | 115 | 151 | |||||
| 8 | 44 | 80 | 116 | 152 | |||||
| 9 | 45 | 81 | 117 | 153 | |||||
| 10 | 46 | 82 | 118 | 154 | |||||
| 11 | 47 | 83 | 119 | 155 | |||||
| 12 | 48 | 84 | 120 | 156 | |||||
| 13 | 49 | 85 | 121 | 157 | |||||
| 14 | 50 | 86 | 122 | 158 | |||||
| 15 | 51 | 87 | 123 | 159 | |||||
| 16 | 52 | 88 | 124 | 160 | |||||
| 17 | 53 | 89 | 125 | 161 | |||||
| 18 | 54 | 90 | 126 | 162 | |||||
| 19 | 55 | 91 | 127 | 163 | |||||
| 20 | 56 | 92 | 128 | 164 | |||||
| 21 | 57 | 93 | 129 | 165 | |||||
| 22 | 58 | 94 | 130 | 166 | |||||
| 23 | 59 | 95 | 131 | 167 | |||||
| 24 | 60 | 96 | 132 | 168 | |||||
| 25 | 61 | 97 | 133 | 169 | |||||
| 26 | 62 | 98 | 134 | 170 | |||||
| 27 | 63 | 99 | 135 | 171 | |||||
| 28 | 64 | 100 | 136 | 172 | |||||
| 29 | 65 | 101 | 137 | 173 | |||||
| 30 | 66 | 102 | 138 | 174 | |||||
| 31 | 67 | 103 | 139 | 175 | |||||
| 32 | 68 | 104 | 140 | 176 | |||||
| 33 | 69 | 105 | 141 | 177 | |||||
| 34 | 70 | 106 | 142 | 178 | |||||
| 35 | 71 | 107 | 143 | 179 | |||||
| 36 | 72 | 108 | 144 | 180 |
NEET Question Paper Set – 6 Answer key
| 1 | 37 | 73 | 109 | 145 | |||||
| 2 | 38 | 74 | 110 | 146 | |||||
| 3 | 39 | 75 | 111 | 147 | |||||
| 4 | 40 | 76 | 112 | 148 | |||||
| 5 | 41 | 77 | 113 | 149 | |||||
| 6 | 42 | 78 | 114 | 150 | |||||
| 7 | 43 | 79 | 115 | 151 | |||||
| 8 | 44 | 80 | 116 | 152 | |||||
| 9 | 45 | 81 | 117 | 153 | |||||
| 10 | 46 | 82 | 118 | 154 | |||||
| 11 | 47 | 83 | 119 | 155 | |||||
| 12 | 48 | 84 | 120 | 156 | |||||
| 13 | 49 | 85 | 121 | 157 | |||||
| 14 | 50 | 86 | 122 | 158 | |||||
| 15 | 51 | 87 | 123 | 159 | |||||
| 16 | 52 | 88 | 124 | 160 | |||||
| 17 | 53 | 89 | 125 | 161 | |||||
| 18 | 54 | 90 | 126 | 162 | |||||
| 19 | 55 | 91 | 127 | 163 | |||||
| 20 | 56 | 92 | 128 | 164 | |||||
| 21 | 57 | 93 | 129 | 165 | |||||
| 22 | 58 | 94 | 130 | 166 | |||||
| 23 | 59 | 95 | 131 | 167 | |||||
| 24 | 60 | 96 | 132 | 168 | |||||
| 25 | 61 | 97 | 133 | 169 | |||||
| 26 | 62 | 98 | 134 | 170 | |||||
| 27 | 63 | 99 | 135 | 171 | |||||
| 28 | 64 | 100 | 136 | 172 | |||||
| 29 | 65 | 101 | 137 | 173 | |||||
| 30 | 66 | 102 | 138 | 174 | |||||
| 31 | 67 | 103 | 139 | 175 | |||||
| 32 | 68 | 104 | 140 | 176 | |||||
| 33 | 69 | 105 | 141 | 177 | |||||
| 34 | 70 | 106 | 142 | 178 | |||||
| 35 | 71 | 107 | 143 | 179 | |||||
| 36 | 72 | 108 | 144 | 180 |